Reading the cumulative count for 2013 thread, I saw one poster use the methodology of counting days of intimacy vs number of occurrences for sex. My question is does it matter to you on whether you and your spouse have intimate encounters in bunches or if it's more evenly spread out. Say you tally a count of 210 instances of PIV, PIA, BJs, HJs and TFs where you go to completion. Would it matter if you achieved that 210 by having sex on 210 separate days or have 70 days of intimacy with 3 times per intimacy day? To me it would matter because I would not like to have only 70 days of actual intimacy out of 365 days. I don't know if anyone thought about it like this before, so I'd be curious as to your thoughts.
Note, intimacy days would not include days where you still show love and affection to your spouse via physical touch. So the 70 day hypothetical would not literally mean no physical touch during the other days.
Note, intimacy days would not include days where you still show love and affection to your spouse via physical touch. So the 70 day hypothetical would not literally mean no physical touch during the other days.
Put the internet to work for you.
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